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Most questions about coercion's effect on responsibility arise in cases of coercion via conditional threats.
and can these reasons include the sort of credible threats that figure in cases of coercion?
For one thing, the morality and rationality of such threats are significantly more complicated than in most ordinary cases of coercion.
By contrast with cases of coercion and fraud, there are at least some cases of alleged exploitation in which B's consent is not defective in either of these ways.
First, on one plausible reading of the Kantian maxim, one treats another as a mere means only when one treats "him in a way to which he could not possibly consent," as in cases of coercion and fraud, where A seeks to undermine B's capacity as an autonomous decision-maker.
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I have not been able to verify this myself, so to speak statistically - and every single case of coercion, let alone of using the niqab to cover up evidence of physical abuse, is a case too many.
Even in the case of coercion, the person being coerced retains the power to resist, even if only mentally.
In the case of coercion, people are coerced into doing what they don't want to do.
We argue for a distinction, based on a neologism: in the case of coercion by circumstance but not by threat, exchange is still voluntary in the conventional sense, but it is not euvoluntary (i.e., truly voluntary).
So what the rich nations are doing is threatening to withhold resources to which the poor nations have a moral right, unless the poor nations hand over organs: a seemingly clear case of coercion.
Under that Act, the federal antitrust laws do not apply to the "business of insurance" as long as the state regulates in that area, except in cases of boycott, coercion, and intimidation.
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Justyna Jupowicz-Kozak
CEO of Professional Science Editing for Scientists @ prosciediting.com