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A mutually advantageous transaction is arguably (wrongly) exploitative only if the outcome is (in some way) unfair to B. This is not merely definitional.
And so it seems better simply to grant that some allegedly exploitative transactions are mutually advantageous and go on to ask what makes a mutually advantageous transaction unfair.
If the state cannot force A to sell the shovel to B, it might be thought completely irrational for the state to prohibit A and B from entering into a consensual and mutually advantageous transaction.
In many cases of alleged exploitation, A gets B to agree to a mutually advantageous transaction to which B would not have agreed under better or perhaps more just background conditions, where A has played no direct causal role in creating those circumstances, where A has no special obligation to repair those conditions, and where B is fully informed as to the consequences of various choices.
Similar(56)
Mutually advantageous transactions present a more difficult set of problems.
We would still have to ask whether there are important distinctions between those cases which are (ex hypothesi) wrongly referred to as mutually advantageous exploitation and those mutually advantageous transactions that are not described in that way.
"This is an advantageous business transaction and nothing more," he said.
On what grounds might we justify interfering with consensual and mutually advantageous exploitative transactions?
And so there may be a "soft paternalist" justification for interference with some mutually advantageous exploitative transactions.
If one wants to claim that a mutually advantageous and consensual transaction cannot be unfair, then that is not a dispute over language.
Can we justify interfering with mutually advantageous and consensual transactions on perfectionist or moralistic grounds?
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Justyna Jupowicz-Kozak
CEO of Professional Science Editing for Scientists @ prosciediting.com